8020 Valid Test Prep & Pass 8020 Exam
8020 Valid Test Prep & Pass 8020 Exam
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PRMIA 8020 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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PRMIA ORM Certificate - 2023 Update Sample Questions (Q52-Q57):
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which of the following statements is best for inclusion in the values to be set for a Risk Function?
- A. We prize the ability to implement the management team's direction on the control of risks.
- B. We prize the ability to implement the board's direction on the implementation of controls for risks.
- C. We prize the ability to lower risk-taking to an absolute minimum - zero if possible.
- D. We prize the ability to ensure that the Risk Function's opinions are listened to and acted upon.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Step 1: Role of a Risk Function
A Risk Function ensures that an organization follows best practices in risk governance, assessment, and control implementation.
It should be aligned with the board's risk strategy and ensure independent oversight.
Step 2: Why Option B is Correct
The board sets the overall risk strategy, and the risk function implements risk controls accordingly.
PRMIA emphasizes board oversight as the guiding force behind risk management.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Implement management's direction") → Incorrect because risk oversight should be board-driven, not solely management-driven.
Option C ("Ensure opinions are listened to") → Incorrect because risk functions enforce policies, not just share opinions.
Option D ("Lower risk-taking to zero") → Incorrect because risk-taking is necessary for growth-excessive risk aversion harms business.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Risk Governance Framework - Highlights board oversight in risk management.
Basel III Risk Management Standards - Emphasizes board-driven risk controls.
Final Conclusion:
The Risk Function must follow the board's direction in implementing risk controls, making Option B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 53
For which of the following reasons did the Turnbull Report have a significant impact on risk governance?
- A. It defined the concept of risk governance for the insurance industry.
- B. It was the first report to list the board as a proposed governance structure.
- C. It was a report that led to the establishment of the US Federal Reserve.
- D. It was the first report to require a board to take specific account of risks and control systems for risks.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Step 1: What Is the Turnbull Report?
The Turnbull Report (1999) was a UK corporate governance report that set risk management expectations for boards.
It required companies to assess and manage risks effectively as part of corporate governance.
Step 2: Why Option C is Correct
Turnbull was the first report to mandate that boards must consider risk management in corporate governance.
This report established risk assessment as a board-level responsibility.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Defined risk governance for insurance") → Incorrect because Turnbull applied to all sectors, not just insurance.
Option B ("First report to propose board structure") → Incorrect because corporate boards existed long before Turnbull.
Option D ("Led to the US Federal Reserve") → Incorrect because the Federal Reserve was established in 1913, long before Turnbull.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Corporate Governance Guidelines - Highlights Turnbull's role in board-level risk oversight.
UK Corporate Governance Code - Turnbull contributed to defining board risk responsibilities.
Final Conclusion:
The Turnbull Report was the first to require boards to consider risks in corporate governance, making Option C the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 54
What are some of the properties of Bottom-Up KRIs?
- A. Selected by local management, based on key controls or weaknesses identified by audit reports, reported on quarterly.
- B. Selected by local management: tied to internal loss events at the legal entity, country, business and / or product level, reported daily, weekly or monthly.
- C. Are not used due to changes in regulations.
- D. Seated by senior management: tied to internal loss events at the legal entity, country, business and / or product level, reported.
daily, weekly or monthly.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Definition of Bottom-Up KRIs
Bottom-Up Key Risk Indicators (KRIs) are identified at the operational level, focusing on localized risks within business units.
They are tied to actual internal loss events and reported frequently (daily, weekly, or monthly) to capture ongoing trends.
Key Properties of Bottom-Up KRIs
Selected by local management → Ensures relevance to specific business areas.
Tied to internal loss events → Helps in tracking risk patterns within specific legal entities, countries, or business units.
Reported frequently → Allows for timely risk detection and mitigation.
Why Answer D is Correct
Bottom-up KRIs focus on localized risk exposure and are monitored frequently to track operational changes.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Seated by senior management: tied to internal loss events at the legal entity, country, business, and/or product level, reported daily, weekly, or monthly.
Incorrect - Senior management sets top-down KRIs, while bottom-up KRIs are managed locally.
B . Selected by local management, based on key controls or weaknesses identified by audit reports, reported quarterly.
Incorrect - While audit reports are useful, bottom-up KRIs are based on loss events, not just audit findings. Quarterly reporting is too infrequent.
C . Are not used due to changes in regulations.
Incorrect - Bottom-up KRIs remain essential despite regulatory changes.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Indicator Best Practices
Basel Committee's Risk Measurement and Reporting Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following principles best applies to a compliance function?
- A. The compliance function should report to the business (even when following a three lines of defense model).
- B. The risk function should be outsourced if there is a compliance function.
- C. The compliance function should be outsourced if there is a risk function.
- D. The compliance function should be independent of the business (following a three lines of defense model).
Answer: D
Explanation:
Step 1: Compliance Function and the Three Lines of Defense Model
The Three Lines of Defense (3LoD) model ensures that risk management responsibilities are properly segregated:
First Line: Business units (own and manage risk).
Second Line: Compliance and risk management (independent oversight).
Third Line: Internal audit (provides assurance).
Step 2: Why Compliance Must Be Independent
PRMIA and Basel Compliance Principles state that compliance should not report to business units, as this creates a conflict of interest.
Compliance must be independent to ensure objective oversight of regulatory adherence.
Step 3: Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Option A ("Report to the business") → Incorrect because compliance must provide independent oversight, not report to business units.
Option C ("Outsource compliance if risk function exists") → Incorrect because compliance and risk functions have distinct roles.
Option D ("Outsource risk if compliance exists") → Incorrect because risk management is a core function, not an outsourcing candidate.
PRMIA Risk Reference Used:
PRMIA Compliance Risk Governance - States compliance must be independent under the Three Lines of Defense model.
Basel Compliance Principles - Recommends separate reporting structures for compliance and business units.
Final Conclusion:
Compliance must be independent from the business to avoid conflicts of interest, making Option B the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Two of the four key resources that are regarded as critical to maintain confidence and calibrate Risk Appetite to are?
- A. Net earnings and capital.
- B. Strong regulatory assessment and net earnings.
- C. Quality human resources and reputation.
- D. Capital expenditure and liquidity.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Key Resources for Calibrating Risk Appetite
Risk appetite defines how much risk an organization is willing to accept to achieve its objectives.
Two of the most critical resources for maintaining confidence and setting risk appetite are net earnings and capital.
Why Net Earnings and Capital are Critical
Net earnings reflect profitability and financial stability, influencing risk-taking capacity.
Capital ensures that the institution can absorb losses and meet regulatory requirements.
Basel III emphasizes capital adequacy as a core measure of financial resilience.
Why Answer B is Correct
Net earnings support operational stability, while capital determines how much risk an institution can bear.
Both are used to define and calibrate risk appetite levels.
Why Other Answers Are Incorrect
Option
Explanation:
A . Capital expenditure and liquidity.
Incorrect - Capital expenditure is an investment measure, not a direct risk appetite determinant.
C . Strong regulatory assessment and net earnings.
Incorrect - Regulatory assessments are important but do not directly set risk appetite.
D . Quality human resources and reputation.
Incorrect - HR and reputation are important for governance but do not directly influence risk capital and earnings stability.
PRMIA Reference for Verification
PRMIA Risk Appetite Framework
Basel III Capital and Earnings Management Guidelines
NEW QUESTION # 57
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